joenidelarosa joenidelarosa
  • 29-09-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Explain why sin (-pi) equals -1 not 1

Respuesta :

Alaiamarie Alaiamarie
  • 29-09-2020
The inverse sin of 1, ie sin-1 (1) is a very special value for the inverse sine function. Remember that sin-1(x) will give you the angle whose sine is x . Therefore, sin-1 (1) = the angle whose sine is 1.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

either you must stop eating my food from the refrigerator or you must pay me for it. what's is a prepositional n the aentence?
Zbigniew Brzezinski, the national security advisor in the 1970s, A. tried to reverse the policy of détente. B. was against cooperation with China. C. believed r
either you must stop eating my food from the refrigerator or you must pay me for it. what's is a prepositional n the aentence?
Find the value of the expression 3m2 2p2 − 15 when m = 3 and p = 10.
HOW MANY MINUTES IS IT TO 12:20 TO 1:20 FRENCH PLZ :)
A rural country implements a family planning education program for women. Which of the following conclusions can you safely make about this country? a. This cou
Which word correctly completes the sentence? .............. going to the beach for a week this summer. a. Their b. They're c. There
Why did people go on pilgrimages?
in the 1500s, most people in Australia spoke which language?
Ashley deposits $1000 into an account that earns 4% interest compounded 2 times per year. how much money will Ashley have in her account after 5 years? round to