Respuesta :

calculista

Let

[tex]x=ab^{2} \\ y=a^{2}b^{2}[/tex]

we know that

if x and y are equivalent

then

[tex]\frac{x}{y} =1[/tex]

so

Divide the value of x by y

[tex]\frac{x}{y} = \frac{ab^{2}}{a^{2}b^{2}}= \frac{1}{a} \\\\ \frac{1}{a} \neq 1[/tex]

therefore

The expressions are not equivalent